What "bugs" you? I'm curious. Is it the spelling with "'s" or the pronunciation some speakers have with [iz]??? How would you pronounce the "possessive" of Jones?
As usual, people run to "style manuals", which deal with language "elegance", and seldom with true language grammar.
The difference in the two is attributable to dialect differences (like most "grammar" divergences). For some dialect speakers the ending in a sibilant in a word can already signal} "possessiveness" in the appropriate grammatical contexts (i.e., where it fits meaning-wise in the sentence). For some of us, though, we need that extra sibilance to distinguish the "nominative", or naming form, from the "genitive" (or possessive) case. It just don't sound "possessive" unless it "possesses" that extra -s/z/iz!
I could never go with "Jesus' beard" (sounds like a bad rock act). It must be "Jesus's beard" [jeez-us-iz], or "no go". It wouldn't be "transparent" (analyzable) as a possessive for me as a speaker otherwise. If you pronounce such things without the extra -[iz], then for you the extra would make it what we call hypercharacterized or doubly marked (redundant-sounding).
It's a dialect thing. The spelling, as usual, is superfluous in spoken English.
Hmmm. My professors taught me that it means "What are you up to, o Romeo?" (or "to what end?"). (English wherefore = German wozu 'where' + 'to/for').[I said:shake[/I]]Quote:
My professors taught me that it means "What are you up to, o Romeo?" (or "to what end?").
"What are you up to?" makes no sense in the context of the scene. "To what end" is another way of asking "why" - "what is the reason for your being Romeo, as opposed to Tom, Dick or Harry?" That's the essence of the question in this part of the balcony scene which.
From the Merriam-Webster Unabridged Dictionary:
Main Entry: bought·en
Etymology: bought (past participle of buy) + -en (as in forgotten)
Now dialect: BOUGHT "... my red sled, and my boughten wagon" -- W.A.White