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Question on biamping (1 Viewer)

BradPrid

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Hi all


I have a Denon 789 receiver that is capable of biamping from Surround Back to Speaker A or B. I just bought a pair of Polk Monitor 75Ts to replace a pair of Polk bookshelf speakers. So today I hooked them up. I removed the bridges between the posts on the speakers and then wired them up. In the excitement, I forgot to set the receiver to bi-amp. When I tried the speakers, I heard sound but no amplification. It sounded like playing vinyl on a turntable without a phono pre-amp. Then I realized I didn't have biamp enabled. Once I did that, the speakers came to life.


My question is I would have figured I still get some normal sound with bass/treble/volume from the speakers without biamp enabled. So I'm wondering if the biamp setup is actually working. Can someone clarify this for me?


Thanks!
 

schan1269

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Depends how biamp is set up in the AVR. No, the manual won't specify...

It is either...

A throwback to non-powered subs, which the biamp portion is beholden to the internal crossover chosen(and not optimal for anything...that isn't a subwoofer)

Or...

Full range transmitted to the tweeter and woofer...which this is a complete waste of time.
 

John Garcia

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Since it all comes off one power supply, it doesn't matter how it is configured internally, it is still a waste of time.
 

schan1269

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I actually did the "bi-amping" once with a Yamaha 6080(6180?)...

Had a Polk RM series sub with two pairs of binding posts(never removed it to see the inside...)

Anyway. The Yamaha was beholden to the internal crossover, as you could readily tell a difference between a 40hz, 80hz and 200hz crossover.
 

JohnRice

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Yeah, it's a waste of time. Here's an analogy. Let's say you are towing a boat and your car doesn't have enough power to pull it up a hill. Bi-amping this way is like using that same car to pull the boat but adding a second tow hitch, and thinking that will get you up the hill.
 

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