drexel
Agent
- Joined
- Apr 5, 2003
- Messages
- 32
Maybe a better question for me would be what is the difference!?! I purchased a KLH R-5100 receiver last week and... well... at least it lasted a full week. Earlier on today, since running some frequency tests off my computer using the NCH tone generator, its output has distorted bass, lowered volume, and overall poor sound. I was planning on trading it in tomorrow for the Kenwood VR-605, but it says at the best buy website (100 watts x 5, 40Hz - 20kHz @8Ohms) where as my KLH had (100 watts x 5, 1kHz @8Ohms)...
First of all, what's the difference? What does the blatant 1kHz mean compared to the 40Hz-20kHz range and which is better? Does the 40Hz bottom of the Kenwood mean that it will not be able to play as low of bass as my 1kHz KLH?
I was planning on picking up the Kenwood tomorrow... so if it's a lemon don't hesitate to tell me before I spend all my hard earned cashish on it!
First of all, what's the difference? What does the blatant 1kHz mean compared to the 40Hz-20kHz range and which is better? Does the 40Hz bottom of the Kenwood mean that it will not be able to play as low of bass as my 1kHz KLH?
I was planning on picking up the Kenwood tomorrow... so if it's a lemon don't hesitate to tell me before I spend all my hard earned cashish on it!