keir

blind test substantiating claim of amplifier sound difference?

anyone have a link to some information about a blind test that showed audible differences between solid state amps? i have found several published results on the web showing that there is no audible difference even between receivers and high end seperates, but no evidence to oppose that conclusion.

as it stands now i am thinking that the claims of huge sound difference between amps are about as credible as those pertaining to speaker wire.

if you know different please set me straight
and anecdotal evidence shouldn't be important in this discussion, i have seen plenty of that already.

RichardHOS

There's an article on Stereophile's archives in which they attempted to prove that amplifiers can sound different.

They, of course, come to the conclusion that there is an audible difference, though if you read closely you'll not that both their test methodology and interpretation of the raw data are flawed. If anything, they proved that in the environment they had set up, differences were exceedingly difficult to hear.

RobertR

I can think of one circumstance in particular that could show audible differences between SS amps: when driving very low impedance speakers, such that the current producing limits of the amps were stressed. One of the rec.audio.high-end audio objectivists drives his very low impedance Apogee ribbons with a Krell amp for this reason.

Chu Gai

That is a nasty load.
Also if the output impedance of your amp is on the high side, say several ohms, one will create a bastardized form of equalization that's dependent upon the speaker's impedance curve. Some manufacturers play this game very carefully and design amp with what they call near zero or minimal local or global feedback. Distortion, usually even order harmonics, rise a bit to give a perceptible glow to the sound and the equalization can result in selectively boosting certain areas of the frequency response curves. However, if distortion is kept to inaudible levels and one follows the approach of low impedance into high impedance down the line, and further the FR of the amp is linear, the audible differences under controlled testing would be supremely difficult to ascertain with a large degree of confidence.

Yogi

Is it that time of the year already to have yet another one of those silly discussions. It must be

As for me I am staying away from this flame bait.

Happy flaming each other's asses folks, and make sure the dead horse is dead this time

The truth is not out there but within you.

Chu Gai

keir

yeah i did find some arguments on stereophiles site
http://www.stereophile.com/showarchives.cgi?113


although im not sure how effective their arguments were.

[rant]
"But when you have taken part in a number of these blind tests and experienced how two amplifiers you know from personal experience to sound extremely different can still fail to be identified under blind conditions, then perhaps an alternative hypothesis is called for: that the very procedure of a blind listening test can conceal small but real subjective differences." [/rant]

I don't understand how you can claim to hear a difference ONLY when you know which amplifier you are listening to. why wouldn't you hear the same difference when the name of the amp is concealed? even though this guy disagrees with blind testing methodology, he concedes that the differences are small. i have no idea what he means by "subjective" differences. the term subjective means that its only a difference in perception and not reality. perhaps that why the blind test prevents him from hearing these differences

RobertR

He also contradicts himself. First he says that personal experience shows that differences are "extreme", then he says they are "small". Which is it? Are they "extreme" or "small"??

RichardHOS

He was correct on both accounts... the differences are extremely small.

Chu Gai

Must be a bitch when he goes in for an eye exam All that rapid switching.